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PRMIA 8011 exam is designed to measure an individual's expertise in credit risk and counterparty management. It covers topics that are crucial in effective risk management, such as credit risk models, credit analysis, and credit risk management strategies. 8011 exam is intended for those who are involved in managing credit risk and counterparty risk, including but not limited to professionals in commercial banking, investment banking, asset management, and insurance.
PRMIA 8011 Exam covers a range of topics related to credit and counterparty risk, including credit analysis, credit rating, credit derivatives, default risk, and counterparty credit risk. It is intended for professionals who work in the financial industry, including risk managers, credit analysts, traders, and other financial professionals who are involved in managing credit and counterparty risk.
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PRMIA 8011 exam is a challenging and rigorous certification that requires extensive preparation and study. Candidates who pass the exam will be awarded the PRMIA CCRM Certificate, which is a valuable credential that can help enhance their career prospects and demonstrate their commitment to the highest standards of risk management practices. Overall, the PRMIA 8011 Exam is an excellent option for professionals who are looking to enhance their knowledge and expertise in credit and counterparty risk management.
PRMIA Credit and Counterparty Manager (CCRM) Certificate Exam Sample Questions (Q175-Q180):
NEW QUESTION # 175
Which of the following is not an example of a risk concentration?
- A. Material amounts of treasury obligations held as collateral provided by a single counterparty
- B. Location of a portfolio's assets in a single country but spread across different industries
- C. Large combined positions in assets affected by different risk factors that are highly correlated
- D. Origination of a large number of SIVs with exposures to the same asset class, where the SIVs are separate legal entities without recourse to the originator
Answer: A
Explanation:
Choice 'd' represents a risk concentration due to excessive exposure to a single country, even though spread across different industries as the risk factors (economy, exchange rate, interest rate, political risk etc) are the same for all companies in the country.
Choice 'a' represents a risk concentration because even though the risk factors are different, they are highly correlated and therefore effectively behave as one. These undetected correlations proved to be fatal to many financial institutions during the credit crisis.
Choice 'b' represents a risk concentration as was borne out by the recent credit crisis. Large banks had to take over the obligations of SIVs they had created, even though the SIVs were separate legal entities with no legally enforceable recourse to the originating bank. This had to be done for moral and reputational reasons, and banks had to absorb the losses of these supposedly separate vehicles.
Choice 'c' does not represent a risk concentration, in fact it is not a risk at all because it refers to collateral held, even though the collateral may have been provided by the same counterparty. In this case the risk is to the party providing the collateral (in case the party holding the collateral rehypothecates or sells the collateral and is unable to return it).
Therefore Choice 'c' is the correct answer.
The BCBS document on stress testing provides a very nice articulation of risk concentration, and the relevant text from that document is produced verbatim here: [Risk concentration] may arise along different dimensions: single name concentrations; concentrations in regions or industries; concentrations in single risk factors; concentrations that are based on correlated risk factors that reflect subtler or more situation-specific factors, such as previously undetected correlations betweenmarket and credit risks, as well as between those risks and liquidity risk; concentrations in indirect exposures via posted collateral or hedge positions; concentrations in off-balance sheet exposure, contingent exposure, non-contractual obligations due to reputational reasons.
NEW QUESTION # 176
According to the Basel II standard, which of the following conditions must be satisfied before a bank can use
'mark-to-model' for securities in its trading book?
I. Marking-to-market is not possible
II. Market inputs for the model should be sourced in line with market prices III. The model should have been created by the front office IV. The model should be subject to periodic review to determine the accuracy of its performance
- A. I, II and IV
- B. I, II, III and IV
- C. II and III
- D. III and IV
Answer: A
Explanation:
According to Basel II, where marking-to-market is not possible, banks may mark-to-model, where this can be demonstrated to be prudent. Marking-to-model is defined as any valuation which has to be benchmarked, extrapolated or otherwise calculated from a market input. When marking to model, an extra degree of conservatism is appropriate. Supervisory authorities will consider thefollowing in assessing whether a mark- to-model valuation is prudent:
* Senior management should be aware of the elements of the trading book which are subject to mark to model and should understand the materiality of the uncertainty this creates in the reporting of the risk/performance of the business.
* Market inputs should be sourced, to the extent possible, in line with market prices. The appropriateness of the market inputs for the particular position being valued should be reviewed regularly.
* Where available, generally accepted valuation methodologies for particular products should be used as far as possible.
* Where the model is developed by the institution itself, it should be based on appropriate assumptions, which have been assessed and challenged by suitably qualified parties independent of the development process. The model should be developed or approved independently of the front office. It should be independently tested.
This includes validating the mathematics, the assumptions and the software implementation.
* There should be formal change control procedures in place and a secure copy of the model should be held and periodically used to check valuations.
* Risk management should be aware of the weaknesses of the models used and how best to reflect those in the valuation output.
* The model should be subject to periodic review to determine the accuracy of its performance (e.g. assessing continued appropriateness of the assumptions, analysis of P&L versus risk factors, comparison of actual close out values to model outputs).
* Valuation adjustments should be made as appropriate, for example, to cover the uncertainty of the model valuation.
The model should be created independent of the front office, and not by it. Therefore statement III does not represent an appropriate choice. Choice 'a' is the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 177
Altman's Z-score does not consider which of the following ratios:
- A. Working capital to total assets
- B. Market capitalization to debt
- C. Sales to total assets
- D. Net income to total assets
Answer: D
Explanation:
A computation of Altman's Z-score considers the following ratios:
- Working capital to total assets
- Retained earnings to total assets
- EBIT to total assets
- Market cap to debt
- Sales to total assets
It does not consider Net Income to total assets, therefore Choice 'c' is the correct answer. This makes sense as net income is after interest and taxes, both of which are not relevant for considering the cash flows for debt servicing.
NEW QUESTION # 178
An operational loss severity distribution is estimated using 4 data points from a scenario. The management institutes additional controls to reduce the severity of the loss if the risk is realized, and as a result the estimated losses from a 1-in-10-year losses are halved. The 1-in-100 loss estimate however remains the same.
What would be the impact on the 99.9th percentile capital required for this risk as a result of the improvement in controls?
- A. The capital required will increase
- B. Can't say based on the information provided
- C. The capital required will stay the same
- D. The capital required will decrease
Answer: A
Explanation:
This situation represents one of the paradoxes in estimating severity that one needs to be aware of - the improvement in controls reduces the weight of the body/middle of the distribution and moves it towards the tails (as the total probability under the curve must stay at 100%) and the distributionbecomes more heavy tailed. As a result, the 99.9th percentile loss actually increases. instead of decreasing, creating a counterintuitive result. Therefore the correct answer is that the capital required will increase.
If scenario analysis produces such a result, the analyst must question if the 1 in 100 year loss severity is still accurate. If the new control has reduced the severity in the body of the distribution, the question as to why the more extreme losses have not changed should be raised.
NEW QUESTION # 179
Financial institutions need to take volatility clustering into account:
I. To avoid taking on an undesirable level of risk
II. To know the right level of capital they need to hold
III. To meet regulatory requirements
IV. To account for mean reversion in returns
- A. II, III and IV
- B. I, II and III
- C. I & II
- D. I, II and IV
Answer: C
Explanation:
Volatility clustering leads to levels of current volatility that can be significantly different from long run averages. When volatility is running high, institutions need to shed risk, and when it is running low, they can afford to increase returns by taking on more risk for a given amount of capital. An institution's response to changes in volatility can be either to adjust risk, or capital, or both. Accounting for volatility clustering helps institutions manage their risk and capital and therefore statements I and II are correct.
Regulatory requirements do not require volatility clustering to be taken into account (at least not yet).
Therefore statement III is not correct, and neither is IV which is completely unrelated to volatility clustering.
NEW QUESTION # 180
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